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- Home
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- CCNA Routing and Switching
Instructions
- Total Questions 20
- Each question carry 1 mark
- Must answer all the questions (otherwise report card will not be generated)
- If you dont want to take a test, simply click the check answers button and view all the answers with explanations
- Do Not Refresh the Page
- No Time Limit
- Good Luck :)
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
The switch has negotiated with the adjacent switch to become a trunk and set its trunking protocol to 802.1Q. The letter n in front of 802.1Q specifies it was negotiated. When a switch is set to auto for the Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP), it will respond to trunking requests but will not initiate DTP messages. The adjacent switch must be set to desirable, since the desirable mode will send DTP messages.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
The two switches have a duplex mismatch. The duplex mismatch is a direct result of statically configuring only one side of the link to full-duplex. Switch A is not participating in port negotiation. Both sides must be configured statically the same or set to auto.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
When implementing Router on a Stick (ROAS), you must first create a trunk to the router. Once the trunk is created, you must create subinterfaces for each VLAN to be routed and specify the IP address and 802.1Q encapsulation.
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
An 802.1Q frame is a modified Ethernet frame. The type field is relocated after the 4 bytes used for 802.1Q tagging. Two of the bytes are used for tagging the frame, and two of the bytes are used for controls such as Class of Service (CoS).
Correct Answers :
[D]
Explanation :
The exhibit shows several MAC addresses that have been dynamically assigned to the MAC address table. Since all of these MAC addresses have been seen on interface Gi1/1, it is safe to say that a switch or hub is connected to it. The output does not depict if the link is an access or trunk link.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
Under normal circumstances, when VLANs are configured, they are stored in a file separate from the startup or running-configuration. The VLAN database is stored in a file called vlan.dat on the flash. When decommissioning a switch, if you were to erase the configuration of a switch, you would also need to delete the vlan.dat.
Correct Answers :
[D]
Explanation :
Switches that are configured in transparent mode will not process VTP updates. They will, however, forward the updates to switches that are connected to them. Transparent mode switches store their VLAN database in their running-configuration and startup-configuration.
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
The long delay for the device to become active on the interface is the wait time for convergence of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). If the interface will only connect a device to the port, then the port should be configured with spanning-tree PortFast mode. This will skip the blocking mode during convergence of STP.
Correct Answers :
[A]
Explanation :
When both Switch A and Switch B are configured as auto for DTP, the link will not form a trunk since neither switch is sending negotiation messages. The ports will remain in access mode.
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
When all of the ports on a switch are in designated mode, it means that the switch is the root bridge for the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP).
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) does not contain a topology table. RIP compiles its table from multiple broadcasts or multicasts in the network from which it learns routes. However, it never has a full topological diagram of the network like OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP.
Correct Answers :
[D]
Explanation :
The split horizons method prevents routing updates from exiting an interface in which they have been learned. This stops false information from propagating in the network, which can cause a routing loop.
Correct Answers :
[A]
Explanation :
The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) priority for a router is a value of 1. This priority is used when electing a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR). The higher the value, the higher the chances of the router becoming a DR or BDR.
Correct Answers :
[D]
Explanation :
When configuring OSPF for the designated router (DR), if you configure another router with a higher priority, the original DR will remain the current DR. OSPF does not allow for preemption, and therefore you must force the election by clearing the OSPF process on the DR. This will force the DR to relinquish its status.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
The command of maximum-paths 6 will configure the maximum number of unequal paths for load balancing with EIGRP to a value of 6. This command must be entered in the router EIGRP process.
Correct Answers :
[A]
Explanation :
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) allows the CPU to initially populate a sort of route cache called the forwarding information base (FIB). Any packets entering the router can be checked against the FIB and routed without the help of the CPU.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
The multicast address of ff02::a is the multicast address for IPv6 EIGRP updates. Updates for routers participating in IPv6 EIGRP will be multicast to the IPv6 address of ff02::a.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
The command no switchport will configure the interface as a layer 3 routed interface. The command ip routing needs to be configured for routing of the interface, but it will not hinder assigning an IP address.
Correct Answers :
[C]
Explanation :
The command passive-interface default when entered in the EIGRP router process will suppress hello messages for all interfaces. You can then include only the interfaces on which you want hello messages to be advertised with the command no passive-interface gi 0/1.
Correct Answers :
[B]
Explanation :
The command show ip cef will display all of the network prefixes and the next hop that Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) has in the forwarding information base (FIB). The command will also display the exit interface for the next hop.
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